No it seems not... I was accused of a 'copout on the subject a while back. It was no such thing. I simply stand by my view that until somebody can define to my satisfaction the nature of the two alleged music types, there is very little point in trying to even approach the question asked above.
In my opinion, nobody has even approached valid definitions- I think it's impossible and unnecessary, but given satisfactory criteria, it might be a worthwhile discussion.

What did the Synod of Whitby decide about the angels and the pins anyway?