Here's something to debate from the Independent today

"The economics is straightforward. When trade barriers between the UK and the EU go up, British producers will sell less to the EU and will sell more within the UK and to the rest of the world."


I would debate it, Karen, but I suspect we are pretty much in agreement. The sentence is a mass of assumptions and dubious claims - I wonder exactly why the British producers will sell more to the UK for example. If the demand is there now, why are they not selling at home already? If it is so, it needs far more explanation than a simple throw-away line.