From the 3rd paragraph: 'As Matthew Gelbart explains in The Invention of “Folk Music” and “Art Music”, Morley could not have wondered whether this music originated among “professional composers” or “the folk”. These categories did not exist [in 1597].' - when it is obvious from everything earlier in the paragraph that 'Morley' WAS categorizing, and that he put 'villanelle, country songs' - and, implicitly, their composers, into their own category - no, he didn't use the same terminology as we do, but it's pretty clear he was talking about the same thing - not to mention that we don't draw a hard line between 'folk' and 'professional', do we?

Anyway, that's enough for me - I'm out.