Am I correct in assuming that if you write lyrics to a 'trad' tune then you are entitled to 100% of the royalties or, are they split 50/50? If 50/50, who receives the trad's portion of the royalties,\,\\,,\,\,\q?.
For example, in the case of The Dark Island, royalties for the 'official' version would be split 50/50 between Maclachlan & Silver. If Stewart Ross wrote his lyrics to the original version (let's assume it WAS a trad tune), does it mean he would be entitled to 100% royalties for recordings using his lyrics?
(Fwiw, I note that Alan Ross seems to be okay with the his father's version being accredited 50/50 to Maclachlan & Ross)