The rule as taught in English - and I just checked with three practicing English teachers --is that the feminine is exclusive of the male gender - but the masculine is always inclusive of the femaleunless defined to show exclusivity or modiefied to show exclusivity. "Men of England" = inclusive "Male inhabitants of England" = exclusive.

That's the way the language functions. So unless and until that basic function of the language is changed...like it or lump it "men" refers equally to women - but "women" excludes all men.