I heard an interesting argument on Shylock recently that suggested that the "has not a Jew?" speech was not to be read as we often read it, as a plea for tolerance. As the link above shows, the audience would not have been much aware of Jews in everyday life to counteract medieval ideas from the mystery plays. Apparently, there were a number of ideas around that suggested that, physically, Jews differed greatly from non-Jews. In particular, "If you cut me, do I not bleed" would have elicited the response, "oh no you wouldn't" - see the blood libel. By comparison, there was a medieval idea that the English all had tails.

This was a radio talk, and I was driving, so it is difficult to get at sources for this discussion. However, it does seem to me that Shakespeare, as often, was writing simultaneously for the educated, who might have taken the speech as we do, and the groundlings, who wouldn't. Which is not in his favour, and puts he, himself, in Iago territory.

Penny