O.k. Burke, and what does it mean to say a scale "lacks semitones"? Does it mean, "if you have a scale with only five notes in it, it is uneconomical to have two of those tones only a single tone apart"? Is a tune with only 5 tones, two of which are only a single half tone apart, a theoretical impossibility?

Mind you, I'm a musical illiterate; I'm just asking.